And it explicitly states that each partner is a 50% shareholder, but it doesn't mentioned the words "undivided share" or "divided share". It just states 50% share. There is no sole use clause or anything of that nature.
What had me asking was it's probably critical to establish exactly which laws are applicable to your situation.
I take it the property is registered as a shareblock on the title deed then, but the ownership entity is an incorporated partnership?
The one thought that occured when reading your first post was based on what you were saying, it seems any change in ownership would require a change in the title deed - which could give the non-selling partner some leverage perhaps.
I'll say this - the buyer's desire to establish a shareholders' agreement is probably a very good idea.
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