Company Car Fringe Benefit and Travel Allowance

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  • J7J
    Silver Member

    • Apr 2011
    • 281

    #1

    Company Car Fringe Benefit and Travel Allowance

    Hi,

    When an employee uses a company car and also gets reimbursed for all his fuel, oil and Repairs and Maintenance Costs on the company car, should there be a "Company Car Fringe Benefit" as well as a "Travel Allowance" on his payslip? Does the Company Car Fringe Benefit not include all fuel, oil and repairs and maintenance as well?

    Please advise.

    Thanks!
  • Dave A
    Site Caretaker

    • May 2006
    • 22803

    #2
    *Bump*
    Can anyone help with this one?

    (I've got a pm from someone asking for the answer, and I"m not confident my thought on this is the correct answer.)
    Participation is voluntary.

    Alcocks Electrical Services | Alcocks Pest Control & Entomological Services | Alcocks Hygiene Services

    Comment

    • Andromeda
      Gold Member

      • Feb 2016
      • 734

      #3
      Originally posted by J7J
      Does the Company Car Fringe Benefit not include all fuel, oil and repairs and maintenance as well?
      The short answer is no. They are seperate benefits.

      Comment

      • S De La Croes
        New Member
        • Oct 2014
        • 7

        #4
        Hi there

        Thanks Adromeda

        Another quick question - If they say the company car is used for private and business use, is it standard 80% x 3.5%x Car value (incl vat) = the amount I will place in the Taxable Remuneration section of the payslip?

        Another question :-) When will I use the 20% x 3.5 % x Car value in calculating remuneration on payslips?

        Thank you

        Comment

        • Andromeda
          Gold Member

          • Feb 2016
          • 734

          #5
          I am not sure I understand the question exactly, but I will try to clarify:

          80% of 3.5% of the determined value is subject to paye and that amount is the fringe benefit value. If that's how you see it then yes.

          The rationale is that 80% of the vehicle will be private use and 20% business use. The ever important logbook may alter the actual 80/20, but that is on assessment, so I guess never.

          Comment

          • Dave A
            Site Caretaker

            • May 2006
            • 22803

            #6
            Originally posted by S De La Croes
            Another question :-) When will I use the 20% x 3.5 % x Car value in calculating remuneration on payslips?
            Only when you have rock solid evidence that the private usage portion will be less than 20%.
            Participation is voluntary.

            Alcocks Electrical Services | Alcocks Pest Control & Entomological Services | Alcocks Hygiene Services

            Comment

            • Andromeda
              Gold Member

              • Feb 2016
              • 734

              #7
              This is an old article, but a very good one
              In the new tax year the value will be the cost of the car, excluding finance and interest charges.

              Comment

              • S De La Croes
                New Member
                • Oct 2014
                • 7

                #8
                Thank you so mich for the feedback! I recently found a question within my assignment for Payroll. I do feel like quite a drag as I might be coming across as slow on the uptake..i just want to understand one thing.

                The scenario - Dave has full access to company car. The monthly use of the car is 3.5 % of VAT incl cost of car...so when they say this my immediate thought is that 80% of the 3.5% of value of car and that answer should be placed beneath Taxable value of the fringe benefit. However, they also have company car listed on the Earnings section....what amount should be placed there? The same amount?

                Thank you

                Sent from my GT-I9060I using Tapatalk

                Comment

                • Andromeda
                  Gold Member

                  • Feb 2016
                  • 734

                  #9
                  Example: 3.5% of R500,000 = R17,500 per month, = R210,000 fringe benefit value (Code 3802) for the year.

                  Of this, R168,000 is subject to PAYE during the year, being R210,000 X 80%

                  So on a payslip the fringe benefit value under the earnings section is R17,500
                  On the IRP5 for code 3802 the amount is R210,000

                  Comment

                  • Ngwemabala
                    New Member
                    • Jun 2016
                    • 1

                    #10
                    I think here firstly what is important is the definition of travel allowance: which is any allowance or advance to be included in taxable income, paid to the recipient in respect for any expenses incurred for business travel, as is not expended in business travel. In short this means, Amount to be included in taxable income = Travel Allowance - Business Expenditure.

                    Comment

                    • S De La Croes
                      New Member
                      • Oct 2014
                      • 7

                      #11
                      Hi All

                      Thank you so much for the feedback and assistance I greatly appreciate it!!

                      Comment

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