I'm not sure that would be the correct way of laying it out, but would be happy to be corrected.
If you invoice the goods in line 1 with normal VAT, doesn't that equal the VAT in line 3? My gut feel is that you can charge VAT out at 14% or zero rate in special circumstances, but charging out VAT at 100% on a line item might be dodgy.

I would also imagine that you should be able to charge out the no vat disbursement at zero rate as I'm assuming its a zero rate item. I'd prefer someone else to confirm that though.

The invoice payment thing I though I had a hold of, but the VAT angle is throwing a curve ball.