i would like to hear your opinion on this matter.
lets say you get married to a women who has children...1 ...2...3 what ever...
this wife and kids live in your house for lets say 10 years...but because you pay all the bills in the house and i mean all the bills in the house...food...bond...insurance...maid...etc etc etc ... all the running cost including school clothes etc....but during this period her ex husband never pays anything towards the kids...and nothing gets done about taking the ex to court for mainenance and so you just keep paying...the kids grow up finish school and...bam...she divorces you and screws you for everything...so you walk away with the clothes on your back...part of the divorce agreement is an amount which you now have to pay for maintenance for your kids which you have while married to the women...just to complicate things your kids are finished school but she chooses to hang onto them...so instead of her making them go out and ad work she chooses to pay for them to sit around at home...becuause in your divorce agrreement she was clever in the way it was drawn up...you only stop paying maintenance when they become self supportive...in other words start working.
my question is what claim do you have against this women and her kids from her previous marrige...and at what point to you stop paying her.
the catch is you have already signed the divorce agreement.